Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 09:50
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why do women have sex with dogs?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What are some common examples of human hypocrisy?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.